I am pretty sure that the following statement is true. I would appreciate any references (or a proof if you know one).
Let f(z) be a polynomial in one variable with complex coefficients. Then there is the following dichotomy. Either we can write f(z)=g(zk) for some other polynomial g and some integer k>1, or the restriction of f(z) to the unit circle is a loop with only finitely many self-intersections. (Which means, more concretely, that there are only finitely many pairs (z,w) such that |z|=1=|w|, zneqw and f(z)=f(w).)
EDIT. Here are a couple reasons why I believe the statement is correct.
1) The statement is equivalent to the following assertion. Consider the set of all ratios z/w, where |z|=1=|w| and f(z)=f(w) (here we allow z=w). If f is a nonconstant polynomial, then this set is finite.
[[ Here is a proof that the latter assertion implies the original statement. Suppose that there are infinitely many pairs (z,w) such that |z|=1=|w|, zneqw and f(z)=f(w). Then some number cneq1 must occur infinitely often as the corresponding ratio z/w. However, this would imply that f(cz)=f(z) (as polynomials). It is easy to check that this forces c to be a root of unity, and if k is the order of c, then f(z)=g(zk) for some polynomial g(z). ]]
Going back to the latter assertion, note that the set of all such ratios is a compact subset of the unit circle, and it is not hard to see that 1 must be an isolated point of this set. So it is plausible that the whole set is discrete (which would mean that it is finite).
2) If I am not mistaken, experiments with polynomials that involve a small number of nonzero monomials (such as 2 or 3) also confirm the original conjecture.
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