I am studying the homotopy type of a space,and i hope it would be a K(pi,1) space.
now i have find its covering,once we can say the covering is K(pi,1),so is the space
itself.and the covering is
mathbbR4−M where M=M1cupM2cupM3cupM4,
M1=(x,y,z,w)|x,yinmathbbR,z,winmathbbZ
M2=(x,y,z,w)|y,zinmathbbR,x,winmathbbZ
M3=(x,y,z,w)|x,winmathbbR,y,zinmathbbZ
M4=(x,y,z,w)|z,winmathbbR,x,yinmathbbZ
I guess mathbbR4−M is K(pi,1) space,can someone help prove this?
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