As with all definitions, there is no "proof" that the adopted definition is the right one but only a feeling that it better corresponds to our intuition.
In the case at hand, taking R/IJ as structure sheaf would make union schemes nonreduced for no good reason. For example take R=k[x,y,z],I=(y,z),J=(x,z). Geometrically you are describing the union U of the x-axis and the y-axis in affine three space mathbbA3k .
It should have a reduced structure, correctly described by IcapJ, whereas I.J=(xy,zx,zy,z2) would make the function z nilpotent but not zero on U, which feels wrong since U should be a closed subscheme of the plane z=0.
A more brutal objection to the idea of defining the union of two subschemes by the product of their ideals is that a subscheme U would practically never be equal to its union with itself, since in generalIneqI2 : we would have (almost always)
UneqUcupU
That looks bad!
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