Sunday, 27 April 2008

pr.probability - Existence of probability measure defined on all subsets

Here is some elaboration on Joel David Hamkins's answer.



A (two-valued) measurable cardinal is an uncountable cardinal kappa such that there is a continuous (<kappa)-additive 0,1-valued probability measure mu defined on all subsets of kappa. To say that mu is (<kappa)-additive means that if (Xi)iinI is a family of pairwise disjoint subsets of kappa with |I|<kappa, then muleft(bigcupiinIXiright)=sumiinImu(Xi). Since mu can only take values 0 and 1, this is equivalent to saying that (a) at most one of the Xi can have measure 1, and (b) if they all have measure 0 then so does bigcupiinIXi. (Some people say kappa-additive instead of (<kappa)-additive, but I prefer to use kappa-additive to mean the above for families with index set of size equal to kappa.)



The existence of a continuous countably additive 0,1-valued probability measure mu defined on all subsets of a set S implies the existence of a measurable cardinal. Indeed, I claim that if kappageqaleph1 is the smallest cardinal such that mu is not kappa-additive, then kappa is a measurable cardinal. To see this, let (Xi)i<kappa be a family of pairwise disjoint measure 0 sets such that bigcupi<kappaXi has measure 1 (i.e. the family contradicts kappa-additivity in the only possible way). Defining barmu(I)=muleft(bigcupiinIXiright) for every Isubseteqkappa, we obtain a (<kappa)-additive 0,1-valued probability measure barmu defined on all subsets of kappa.



So the existence of a continuous countably additive 0,1-valued measure defined on all subsets of a set S is exactly equivalent to the existence of a measurable cardinal. However, since a probability measure is also allowed to take values strictly between 0 and 1, this is not quite equivalent to the statement you asked about.



By analogy with the above, a real-valued measurable cardinal is an uncountable cardinal kappa such that there is a continuous (<kappa)-additive probability measure defined on all subsets of kappa. The existence of a real-valued measurable cardinal is equivalent to your statement by a variation of the trick used above.



In 1930, Ulam (Zur Masstheorie in der allgemeinen Mengenlehre, Fund. Math. 16) showed that if kappa is real-valued measurable then kappageq2aleph0, and that if kappa>2aleph0 is real-valued measurable then kappa is in fact measurable (with a possibly different measure). Ulam also showed that successor cardinals like aleph1 cannot be real-valued measurable.



In the 1960's, Solovay (MR290961) finally resolved the boundary case. He showed that if kappa=2aleph0 is real-valued measurable then there is an inner model (namely L[I] where I is the ideal of null sets) wherein kappa is still real-valued measurable and GCH holds, therefore kappa is measurable in that inner model by Ulam's earlier results. While this doesn't mean that the existence of a real-valued measurable cardinal and the existence of a measurable cardinal are equivalent, it shows that the two statements are equiconsistent over ZFC.



Using forcing (and another result of Ulam), Solovay also showed that if there is a model with a measurable cardinal then there is a model in which the Lebesgue measure on [0,1] can be extended to a probability measure defined on all subsets of [0,1].

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