This question is motivated by my most spectacular answer on MO (:
Let A be a module over mathbbZ. A is said to be torsion-free if na=0 implies n=0 or a=0 for any ninmathbbZ,ainA. A is torsionless if the map phi:AtoA∗∗ is injective (here ∗ means textHommathbbZ(A,mathbbZ)).
If A is finite, then torsion-free and torsionless are equivalent. In general, it is not hard to see that being torsionless implies torsion-free. On the other hand, A=mathbbQ is torsion-free but not torsionless since A∗=0. But the question and answers quoted above (which shows that for A=mathbbZ[x], phi is an isomorphism) raised the following:
Question: If A is a finite mathbbZ[x1,...,xd]-module, are being torsion-free and torsionless equivalent?
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