I was feeling a bit rusty on my field theory, and I was reviewing out of McCarthy's excellent book, Algebraic Extensions of Fields. Out of Chapter 1, I was able to work out everything "left to the reader" or omitted except for one corollary, stated without proof (see here for the page in the book):
Let K/k be a finite normal
extension. Then K can be obtained by
a purely inseparable extension,
followed by a separable extension.
The text immediately preceding this implies that the intermediate field that's going to make this happen is F=ainK:sigma(a)=a$forall$sigmainGal(K/k), and I understand his argument as to why F/k is purely inseparable (in fact, that's the theorem, Theorem 21, which this is a corollary to). What I don't understand is why K/F is separable; I don't see how we've ruled out it being non-purely inseparable.
Note that I will be making a distinction between non-purely inseparable (inseparable, but not purely inseparable) and not purely inseparable (either separable or non-purely inseparable).
Here are some observations / my general approach:
- One big thing that seemed promising was Theorem 11 (at the bottom of this page), which is basically the reverse of the corollary I'm having trouble with:
Let K be an arbitrary algebraic extension of k. Then K can be obtained by separable extension followed by a purely inseparable extension.
(the separable extension referred to is of course the separable closure of k in K). It seems like we want to use Theorem 11 on K/F, and argue that there can't be "any more" pure inseparability, but I couldn't figure out a way of doing this.
Theorem 21 is actually an "if and only if" (that is, ainK is purely inseparable over k iff sigma(a)=a for all sigmainGal(K/k)). Because this implies that any ainK with anotinF is not purely inseparable over k, we have that F is the maximum (not just maximal) purely inseparable extension of k in K.
If any ainK were purely inseparable over F, by Theorem 8 (see here), there is some e for which apeinF. But by the same theorem, since F/k is purely inseparable, there is some b for which (ape)pb=ape+bink. Thus a would be purely inseparable over k by the converse (Corollary 1 to Theorem 9, see here), and hence be in F. Thus, K (and any field between K and F, besides F itself) is not purely inseparable over F.
So, that's why I don't see how we've ruled out K/F being non-purely inseparable. Sorry about making lots of references to the book - I'm just not sure what previously established results McCarthy intended to be used, and I wanted to point out what I saw as the important ones for people not familiar with the book. I'm sure I'm missing something obvious here. Does anyone see the last bit of the argument?
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