I don't have a complete answer yet, but it seems highly implausible such a thing exists. Assume there exists some map T:mathcalStomathcalS on Schwarz space such that
(fcdotg)∗h=(Tf∗Th)cdot(Tg∗Th), it is clear that T cannot be a linear map (else the left and right sides scale differently when h is replaced by lambdah).
Now say we want T to map real-valued functions to real-valued ones, then we run into a bit of a problem: let h be negative of the normal Gaussian. Then for any real-valued f, f2geq0, so the LHS (fcdotf)∗h is non-positive. On the other hand, the RHS becomes (Tf∗Th)2 is non-negative. And we get a contradiction.
How about translation invariance? Suppose (Tf)(x−s)=T(f(x−s)). Now take f to be some bump function with support in the unit interval. And take g to be an arbitrary translate of f. In the case where g=f, we have that the left hand side does not always vanish, which implies that (Tf∗Th) cannot vanish identically. But when g is a translate by some large (compared to 1) value, the LHS becomes 0. However, writing ft(x)=f(x−t), we have that Tft∗Th=Tf∗Tht, so this implies that (fcdotft)∗h=(hcdotht)∗f=0 for any h, and this is obviously nonsense. So T cannot be translation invariant.
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