Let the positive, unequal integers be a1<a2<cdots<ak with a1+a2+cdots+ak=a1a2cdotsak=n. Obviously if k=1 all positive integers work; suppose from now on that k>1. Note that akgek. Then we have a1+a2+cdots+ak<kak, while a1a2cdotsakge(k−1)!ak. So we must have kak>(k−1)!ak, which means that k>(k−1)!. This means kle3. If k=2, then we have a1+a2=a1a2, or frac1a1+frac1a2=1. This can easily be seen to have only the solution (2,2), which doesn't satisfy our hypothesis that the ai be unequal.
The case k=3 is then the only tricky case. If a1>1, then we have a1+a2+a3<3a3 and a1a2a3ge6a3. So a1=1. We then must find solutions to 1+a2+a3=a2a3. This can be rewritten as (a2−1)(a3−1)=2, which as a2<a3 are integers immediately gives a2=2,a3=3.
In summary, all possible solutions are n for all positive integers n and 1,2,3.
History: this is definitely a classic problem; see for example 2006 USA Mathematical Olympiad problem #4 (pdf, problem is on second page), which is your problem with several restrictions removed.
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