Tuesday, 12 October 2010

gn.general topology - Can topologies induce a metric? (revised)

This is a revised version of a question I already posted, but which patently was ill posed. Please give me another try.




For comparison's sake, the axioms of a metric:



Axiom A1: (forallx)d(x,x)=0



Axiom A2: (forallx,y)d(x,y)=0rightarrowx=y



Axiom A3: (forallx,y)d(x,y)=d(y,x)



Axiom A4: (forallx,y,z)d(x,y)+d(y,z)geqd(x,z)




Let T = {X,T} be a topology, B a base of T, x,y,z in X



Definition D0: x is nearer to y than to z with respect to B (NBxyz) iff (exists b in B)  x, y in b  &  z notin b  & (nexists b in B)  x, z in b  &  y notin b



Definition D1: B is pre-metric1 iff (forallx,y)xneqyrightarrowNBxxy



Definition D2: B is pre-metric2 iff (forall x,y,z) ((z neq x & z neq y) rightarrow N_Bxyz) rightarrow x = y



Definition D3: B is pre-metric3 iff (forallx,y,z)NBzyxrightarrow(NByxzrightarrowNBxyz)




Definition: T is pre-metrici iff (existsB)B is pre-metrici (i = 1,2,3).



Definition: B is pre-metric iff B is pre-metric1, pre-metric2 and pre-metric3.



Definition: T is pre-metric iff (existsB)B is pre-metric.



Remark: D1 is an analogue of axiom A1, D2 of axiom A2, D3 of axiom A3.



Remark: T is pre-metric1 iff T is T1[not quite sure].



Remark: If T is induced by a metric, then T is pre-metric.




Question: Can a property pre-metric4 be defined such that T induces a metric iff T is induced by a metric with



Definition: B is metric iff B is pre-metric and pre-metric4.



Definition: T induces a metric iff (existsB)B is metric.



Remark: Property pre-metric4 should be an analogue of A4 (the triangle inequality).



If provably no such property can be defined does this shed a light on the difference (an asymmetry) between topologies and metric spaces? ("It's the triangle inequality, that cannot be captured topologically.")

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