Yes.
A standard lemma is that some element of alpha,2alpha,...,malpha is within 1/(m+1) of 0 mod 1, since otherwise, there would have to be two multiples of alpha between some k/(m+1) and (k+1)/(m+1) which means their difference would be close to 1.
The same pigeonhole argument works on (S1)n. Consider the first mn+1 multiples of (alpha1,...alphan). Two must be in the same n-dimensional box [k1/m,(k1+1)/m]times...[kn/m,(kn+1)/m] which means their difference is a multiple tmtimes(alpha1,..,alphan) within 1/m of 0 on each coordinate.
If you want more details and better approximations, then there are some multidimensional versions of simple continued fractions which might work, but this suffices to show that a sequence of integers tm exists so that ztmi is within 2pi/m of 1.
No comments:
Post a Comment