(follow-up to: Naturally definable sets of natural numbers)
Every formula Psi(x) in the first-order language of Peano arithmetic defines a set of natural numbers. Some of these sets are finite, others are infinite. Every finite set lbracen0,n1,...,nkrbrace can be defined by an equation p(x)=q(x) with p(x),q(x) finite polynomials in x with natural coefficients. Let in the following phi(x) be such an equation [read "phi" for "finite"]. Infinite sets cannot be described by any phi(x).
Given a formula Omega(x) which defines an infinite set [read "omega" for "infinite"]. Then every formula of the form Omega(x)veephi(x) or Omega(x)wedgenegphi(x) defines an infinite set, too.
The motivation of the following definition is this: A formula defining an infinite set shall be called arbitrary if it is derived from a natural (= non-arbitrary) formula by adding or removing finitely many arbitrary elements.
Definition (wannabe): A formula Omega(x) is arbitrary iff it defines an infinite set and is equivalent
- to a formula omega(x)veephi(x) with phi(x)notrightarrowomega(x) or
- to a formula omega(x)wedgenegphi(x) with omega(x)notrightarrownegphi(x)
where omega(x) is not arbitrary. (Of course, omega(x) defines an infinite set.)
On first sight, this definition seems circular:
Let Omega(x)equivomega(x)veephi(x) with phi(x)notrightarrowomega(x).
Then omega(x)equivOmega(x)wedgenegphi′(x) with Omega(x)notrightarrownegphi′(x).
Then Omega(x) is arbitrary iff omega(x) is not arbitrary.
Might this seemingly vicious circle not be in fact a (hidden) recursive definition (by something like "(abstract) length of formulas")?
Cannot this circle be broken? What about the intuition, that (existsy)x=2cdoty is a non-arbitrary formula, but that (existsy)x=2cdotyveex=17 is an arbitrary one?
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